Free MDCAT-2025-26 FLP-2 Online Test

1. Statements:

1. All the schools in the area had to be kept closed for most part of the week.
2. Many parents have withdrawn their children from the local schools.

2. K is the son of A’s mother’s sister. Q is daughter of D, who is the father of G and grandfather of A. P is the Daughter of H who is grandmother of K. D is husband of H and G is husband of L. How is P related to Q?
a) Cousin
b) Daughter
c) Sister
d) Mother

3. Statements:

1. The Reserve Bank of India has recently put restrictions on few small banks in the country.
2. The small banks in the private and co-operative sector in India are not in a position to withstand the competitions of the bigger in the public sector.

4. Statement: Exporters in the capital are alleging that commercial banks are violating a Reserve Bank of India directive to operate a post shipment export credit denominated in foreign currency at international rates from January this year.

Courses of Action:

1. The officers concerned in the commercial banks are to be suspended.
2. The RBI should be asked to stop giving such directives to commercial banks.

5.

6. Find the correct alternative which will replace the question mark?

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7. Deepa’s younger brother Bobby is older than Hitika. Shweta is younger than Nilesh but elder than Deepa. If Nilesh is younger than Shyam then who is the youngest?
a) Shyam
b) Nilesh
c) Bobby
d) Hitika

8. A box had 17 bulbs. All but five are fused. How many are actually fused?
a) 9
b) 8
c) 12
d) 5

9. Complete the following series 6, 12, 36, 144, 720…?
a) 4320
b) 2843
c) 8249
d) 6825

10. If I ____ you, I would not make that mistake.
A) am
B) was
C) were
D) be

11. The new policy is expected to bring ____ significant change.
A) a
B) an
C) the
D) no article

12. The old castle was surrounded ____ thick forests.
A) with
B) by
C) from
D) at

13. Choose the correctly spelled word.
A) Priviledge
B) Privilege
C) Privilage
D) Previledge

14. If it ____ tomorrow, the match will be canceled.
A) rains
B) rained
C) rain
D) raining

15. Choose the correct option: No sooner ____ I reached the station than the train left.
A) had
B) have
C) was
D) did

16. . Choose the correct preposition: He was accused ____ theft.
A) for
B) on
C) with
D) of

17. She prefers coffee ____ tea.
A) than
B) over
C) to
D) for

18. The plural of “phenomenon” is:
A) phenomenons
B) phenomena
C) phenomenones
D) phenomenas

19. The technique used to make identical genetic copies of an organism is:
A) Hybridization
B) Cloning
C) Mutation
D) Transformation

20. Which of the following techniques separates DNA fragments based on size?
A) Gel electrophoresis
B) PCR
C) Centrifugation
D) DNA sequencing

21. A vector in genetic engineering is used to:
A) Destroy foreign DNA
B) Act as a restriction enzyme
C) Transfer a gene into a host cell
D) Modify amino acids

22. Overproduction of cortisol leads to which disorder?
A) Addison’s disease
B) Cushing’s syndrome
C) Diabetes insipidus
D) Goitre

23. The hormone that increases blood sugar level is:
A)Glucagon
B) Thyroxine
C) Oxytocin
D) ADH

24. The main function of adrenaline is to:
A) Lower heart rate
B) Decrease glucose level
C) Aid digestion
D) Prepare the body for “fight or flight”

25. The “all-or-none law” means that:
A) The strength of stimulus affects the size of the impulse
B) Only strong stimuli produce impulses
C) A threshold stimulus produces a full impulse, or none at all
D) Impulses vary in intensity

26. The resting membrane potential of a neuron is approximately:
A) +70 mV
B) –70 mV
C) –40 mV
D) 0 mV

27. The insulating layer around some axons that increases the speed of impulse
conduction is called:
A) Schwann sheath
B) Myelin sheath
C) Endoneurium
D) Synaptic sheath

28. The glomerular filtrate is collected in the:
A) Loop of Henle
B) Collecting duct
C)Bowman’s capsule
D) Renal pelvis

29. The main difference between glomerular and peritubular capillaries is that:
A) Both perform the same function
B) Glomerulus has no connection to the renal artery
C) Peritubular capillaries are larger in diameter
D) Glomerulus filters blood; peritubular capillaries reclaim useful materials

30. The main role of the kidneys in osmoregulation is to:
A) Maintain balance of water and salts in the body
B) Remove oxygen
C) Produce glucose
D) Secrete hormones only

31. The Law of Independent Assortment explains:
A) Separation of alleles of one gene
B) Independent behavior of alleles of two or more genes during gamete formation
C) Dominance of one trait over another
D) Mutation in genes

32. The phenomenon of genes located close together on the same chromosome being
inherited together is called:
A) Independent assortment
B) Linkage
C) Segregation
D) Mutation

33. A woman who is a carrier for hemophilia (XᴴXʰ) marries a normal man (XᴴY). The
probability of their son being hemophilic is:
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 100%

34. The exchange of segments between non-sister chromatids of homologous
chromosomes is known as:
A) Segregation
B) Mutation
C) Transcription
D) Crossing over

35. According to Mendel’s Law of Segregation, alleles:
A) Separate during gamete formation
B) Blend to form an intermediate
C) Remain linked on the same chromosome
D) Are inherited in pairs always together

36. A freely movable joint such as the shoulder or hip is known as:
A) Fibrous joint
B) Cartilaginous joint
C) Synovial joint
D) Immovable joint

37. Rigor mortis occurs after death because:
A) Calcium remains bound to troponin
B) ATP is unavailable for detaching myosin from actin
C) Excess ATP causes contraction
D) Myosin breaks down

38. The power stroke in muscle contraction occurs when:
A) Calcium binds to troponin
B) Actin detaches from myosin
C) ATP binds to actin
D) Myosin head pulls actin filament using ATP energy

39. Skeletal muscles differ from smooth muscles in those skeletal muscles:
A) Are striated and under voluntary control
B) Are involuntary
C) Have single nucleus
D) Are non-striated

40. The light band in skeletal muscle consists mainly of:
A) Myosin only
B) Troponin only
C) Both actin and myosin
D) Actin only

41. Bone differs from cartilage because bone:
A) Has no matrix
B) Is non-living
C) Is rich in calcium salts and highly vascular
D) Is more elastic than cartilage

42. The major symptoms of AIDS include:
A) Persistent fever, weight loss, and susceptibility to infections
B) Joint pain and swelling
C) Skin ulcers only
D) Yellowing of eyes and skin

43. . Which of the following correctly matches the hormone with its phase of the cycle?
A) Estrogen – luteal phase
B) Progesterone – follicular phase
C) Estrogen – proliferative phase
D) LH – menstrual phase

44. The menstrual bleeding phase occurs when:
A) Ovum is fertilized
B) Corpus luteum degenerates and progesterone drops
C) LH increases
D) Estrogen levels rise sharply

45. The main hormone responsible for growth and maturation of ovarian follicles is:
A) LH
B) Estrogen
C) FSH
D) Progesterone

46. The first half of the menstrual cycle (up to ovulation) is called the:
A) Luteal phase
B) Follicular phase
C) Secretory phase
D) Ovulatory phase

47. According to Darwin, individuals best adapted to their environment:
A) Reproduce and pass on favorable traits
B) Lose their traits quickly
C) Always become extinct
D) Do not reproduce

48. Darwin’s finches differed mainly in their:
A) Feather color
B) Nesting habits
C) Wing size
D) Beak shape and function

49. Which of the following statements contradicts Lamarck’s theory?
A) Acquired traits are not inherited through genes
B) Environment influences changes in traits
C) Continuous use strengthens organs
D) Disuse causes reduction of organs

50. In females, LH is responsible for:
A) Follicle growth
B) Ovulation and formation of corpus luteum
C) Milk secretion
D) Ova maturation only

51. Which statement is true about genetic drift?
A) It always increases fitness
B) It is stronger in large populations
C) It may lead to fixation or loss of alleles purely by chance
D) It requires migration

52. A small group of birds carried by wind to a new island and forming a new species
illustrates:
A) Genetic bottleneck
B) Founder effect
C) Natural selection
D) Mutation

53. The digestive enzyme lipase breaks down:
A) Proteins into amino acids
B) Carbohydrates into glucose
C) Fats into fatty acids and glycerol
D) Nucleic acids into nucleotides

54. The duodenum receives bile and pancreatic juice through ducts from the:
A) Stomach and gall bladder
B) Gall bladder and kidneys
C) Colon and spleen
D) Liver and pancreas

55. The enzyme that digests proteins into smaller peptides in the stomach is:
A) Pepsin
B) Amylase
C) Maltase
D) Lipase

56. The organ that acts as a temporary food reservoir and performs mechanical and
chemical digestion is the:
A) Mouth
B) Stomach
C) Liver
D) Duodenum

57. The muscular movement that pushes food through the alimentary canal is called:
A) Mastication
B) Deglutition
C) Peristalsis
D) Egestion

58. Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the capillaries because:
A) Alveolar pressure of oxygen is higher than in blood
B) Oxygen is actively pumped by cells
C) Carbon dioxide attracts oxygen molecules
D) Blood pressure in alveoli is high

59. Gas exchange in the lungs occurs mainly through the process of:
A) Active transport
B) Diffusion
C) Osmosis
D) Filtration

60. The main poisonous gas in cigarette smoke that binds to hemoglobin is:
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Nitrogen dioxide
C) Carbon monoxide
D) Sulfur dioxide

61. Most carbon dioxide is transported in the blood as:
A) Carbaminohemoglobin
B) Bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻)
C) Dissolved CO₂ gas
D) Carboxyhemoglobin

62. The trachea is supported by C-shaped cartilage rings because they:
A) Help in sound production
B) Keep the airway open and prevent collapse
C) Filter dust particles
D) Produce mucus

63. Suppressor (regulatory) T-cells function to:
A) Increase antibody production
B) Produce more cytokines
C) Kill infected cells
D) Inhibit immune response after infection is controlled

64. Helper T-cells assist immune responses by:
A) Activating B-cells and cytotoxic T-cells through cytokines
B) Producing antibodies directly
C) Acting as phagocytes
D) Blocking antigen binding sites

65. In humoral immunity, the main role of B-lymphocytes is to:
A) Attack infected cells directly
B) Produce antibodies that bind to antigens
C) Engulf pathogens by phagocytosis
D) Secrete histamine

66. Which statement best describes the antigen?
A) It is any foreign molecule that triggers an immune response
B) It is a type of antibody
C) It is produced by T-cells
D) It neutralizes toxins

67. The pacemaker of the heart, which initiates the heartbeat, is located in the:
A) Right ventricle
B) Left atrium
C) Right atrium (Sinoatrial node)
D) Atrioventricular bundle

68. Lymph nodes function mainly to:
A) Produce red blood cells
B) Pump lymph to the heart
C) Filter lymph and trap pathogens
D) Store plasma

69. The sound of the heartbeat (‘lub-dub’) is produced by:
A) Flow of blood through arteries
B) Pulse waves in the veins
C) Contraction of heart muscles
D) Opening and closing of heart valves

70. Which of the following correctly shows the sequence of blood flow through the
heart and lungs?
A) Left ventricle → lungs → left atrium
B) Right atrium → right ventricle → lungs → left atrium
C) Left atrium → right ventricle → lungs → left ventricle
D) Right ventricle → right atrium → lungs → left ventricle

71. Which of the following statements about competitive inhibition is true?
A) It cannot be reversed
B) It lowers enzyme concentration
C) It permanently inactivates enzyme
D) It can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration

72. Extremes of pH affect enzyme activity mainly by:
A) Changing enzyme color
B) Increasing reaction rate indefinitely
C) Destroying substrate molecules
D) Altering the ionization and shape of the active site

73. Which of the following best describes the effect of temperature on enzyme
activity?
A) Activity increases indefinitely with temperature
B) Activity increases up to an optimum temperature, then decreases
C) Temperature has no effect on enzymes
D) Enzymes denature at low temperature

74. In the induced-fit model of enzyme action:
A) The substrate alters the shape of the active site slightly to fit
B) The enzyme’s active site remains rigid
C) The enzyme breaks down after reaction
D) The substrate is permanently changed into an inhibitor

75. Which of the following statements about enzymes is incorrect?
A) They are not consumed in reactions
B) They alter the equilibrium of reactions
C) They are specific to substrates
D) Their activity can be affected by temperature and pH

76. Which statement correctly contrasts DNA organization in prokaryotic and
eukaryotic cells?
A) Prokaryotic DNA is linear; eukaryotic DNA is circular
B) Both contain histone-associated DNA
C) Prokaryotic DNA is circular and free in cytoplasm; eukaryotic DNA is linear and
enclosed in nucleus
D) Both store DNA in the nucleus

77. The centromere functions to:
A) Attach chromosomes to the nuclear membrane
B) Regulate protein synthesis
C) Control replication
D) Join sister chromatids and attach spindle fibers

78. Mitochondria are semiautonomous organelles because they:
A) Cannot divide independently
B) Are formed by the nucleus
C) Have their own DNA and ribosomes
D) Lack enzymes for respiration

79. The Golgi apparatus modifies proteins by:
A) Removing phosphate groups
B) Adding carbohydrates and forming glycoproteins
C) Breaking peptide bonds
D) Adding lipids only

80. The lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with:
A) Cytoplasm
B) Nucleolus
C) Plasma membrane
D) Nuclear envelope

81. The nuclear pores function to:
A) Transport proteins and RNA between nucleus and cytoplasm
B) Allow only DNA to pass
C) Prevent exchange of materials
D) Store ribosomes

82. The nitrogenous base uracil is found in:
A) DNA only
B) Neither DNA nor RNA
C) Both DNA and RNA
D) RNA only

83. In protein molecules, the sequence of amino acids determines:
A) The folding and final shape of the protein
B) Only its molecular weight
C) Its denaturation temperature
D) Its ability to dissolve in water

84. The double helix structure of DNA is stabilized mainly by:
A) Peptide bonds
B) Hydrogen bonds between complementary bases
C) Ionic bonds between phosphates
D) Van der Waals forces only

85. The solvent property of water is due to:
A) Nonpolar covalent bonds
B) Its high surface tension
C) Polarity and hydrogen bonding
D) Low specific heat capacity

86. Unsaturated fatty acids differ from saturated ones because they:
A) Contain double bonds in their hydrocarbon chain
B) Have more hydrogen atoms
C) Are solid at room temperature
D) Are found in animal fats

87. Peptide bonds in proteins are formed between:
A) Two carboxyl groups
B) Two amino groups
C) Amino group of one amino acid and carboxyl group of another
D) Side chains only

88. Which of the following statements about cellulose is correct?
A) It is composed of α-glucose molecules
B) It is insoluble in water and provides structural support in plants
C) It is a storage polysaccharide in animals
D) It is easily digested by humans

89. The major site of ATP formation through oxidative phosphorylation is:
A) Mitochondrial matrix
B) Cytoplasm
C) Inner mitochondrial membrane (cristae)
D) Outer membrane

90. In the electron-transport chain, electrons from NADH enter the system at:
A) Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase)
B) Complex II
C) Coenzyme Q
D) Cytochrome c

91. The first compound formed in the Krebs cycle by condensation of acetyl-CoA and
oxaloacetate is:
A) α-Ketoglutarate
B) Succinate
C) Citrate (Citric acid)
D) Malate

92. The coenzymes NAD⁺ and FAD are important because they:
A) Act as electron carriers in respiration
B) Break down ATP
C) Form cell membranes
D) Absorb oxygen directly

93. In animal muscles during fatigue, anaerobic respiration forms:
A) Ethanol
B) Pyruvate
C) Acetyl-CoA
D) Lactic acid

94. In yeast cells, anaerobic respiration produces:
A) Alcohol and carbon dioxide
B) Lactic acid
C) Oxygen and glucose
D) ATP and oxygen

95. During the transition from lysogenic to lytic cycle, which event occurs first after
exposure to ultraviolet radiation or chemical agents?
A) Host cell lysis
B) Viral DNA excision from host chromosome
C) Synthesis of viral proteins
D) Formation of new capsids

96. In the lysogenic cycle, the viral DNA integrates with the bacterial chromosome and
is replicated as the host divides. This integrated viral DNA is called:
A) Virion
B) Provirus
C) Prophage
D) Lysogen

97. The tail fibers of a bacteriophage help in:
A) Replication
B) Attachment to host cell
C) DNA synthesis
D) Cell division

98. The subunits of a capsid are known as:
A) Capsomeres
B) Ribosomes
C) Peptones
D) Liposomes

99. Viruses contain:
A) Only proteins
B) Only carbohydrates
C) Nucleic acid and protein
D) Nucleic acid and lipids

100. Which reagent is suitable for converting nitrobenzene to aniline under catalytic hydrogenation?

101. Which species is least likely to be oxidized under mild conditions?

102. Which statement about nucleophilicity vs basicity in polar protic solvents is true?

103. Which measurement technique determines molecular structure by scattering of X-rays off electron clouds?

104. Which statement about enantiomers is true?

105. Which is the major product when benzaldehyde undergoes Cannizzaro reaction (no α-H present) under strong base?

106. Which phenomenon explains why ionic compounds conduct electricity when molten but not as solids?

107. Which is correct about bridging ligands in coordination complexes?

108. Which molecule has the greatest dipole moment?

109. Which property best distinguishes an aldehyde from a ketone experimentally?

110. Which of the following increases vapor pressure of a liquid?

111. Which describes the trend in ionization energy down a group?

112. In the reaction 2 NO₂ ⇌ N₂O₄ (Kc large at low T), what happens to equilibrium when temperature increases?

113. Which element shows the largest negative standard reduction potential (most difficult to reduce) among Zn²⁺/Zn, Cu²⁺/Cu, Ag⁺/Ag?

114. Which statement about transition state and activation energy is true?

115. Which is the correct product of bromination of anisole (methoxybenzene) under electrophilic conditions?

116. Which type of isomerism is shown by 1-chloropropane and 2-chloropropene?

117. Which gas law best models real gas corrections at high pressure and low temperature?

118. Which describes the relationship between Kp and Kc for a gas-phase reaction?

119. Which ion will exhibit strong color in aqueous solution due to d–d transitions?

120. For an ideal gas, at constant temperature, which change halves the mean free path?

121. Which statement about SN1 reaction kinetics is correct?

122. Which is the product of nitration of toluene under standard conditions (electrophilic substitution)?

123. Which of the following organic species is aromatic?

124. Which is true about standard electrode potentials (E°)?

125. Which of the following compounds is least reactive toward nucleophilic acyl substitution?

126. Which compound yields a primary alcohol after hydroboration–oxidation of an alkene?

127. Which of the following best explains resonance stabilization energy?

128. Which process increases entropy (ΔS positive) most?

129. Which of the following best explains why NaCl is soluble in water?

130. Which describes Hund’s multiplicity rule effect on atom ground states?

131. Which phrase best defines limiting reagent?

132. Which reagent converts carboxylic acids to acid chlorides?

133. Which statement describes Hund’s rule?

134. Which of the following is a characteristic of sp hybridized carbon?

135. Which is true for molecular orbital (MO) theory of O₂?

136. Which statement regarding colligative properties is true?

137. Which factor explains why benzene undergoes electrophilic substitution rather than addition?

138. Which reaction shows nucleophilic substitution at saturated carbon via SN2 mechanism?

139. A voltaic cell has E°cell = +1.10 V. Which statement is true?

140. Which is the major product of the acid-catalyzed hydration of 2-methylpropene?

141. Which reagent converts primary alcohols to aldehydes without over-oxidation under controlled conditions?

142. Which statement best describes lattice energy trends?

143. Which statement about ionic radius and isoelectronic species is correct?

144. 2.00 g of an ideal gas occupies 0.91 L at 273 K and 1.00 atm. The molar mass of the gas is closest to: (R = 0.0821 L·atm·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹)

145. When a dielectric slab completely fills the space between the plates of a capacitor, the capacitance becomes 5 times the original value. The dielectric constant KKK of the material is:

146. Three identical capacitors each of capacitance C are connected in such a way that the equivalent capacitance is 3C/2. The connection is:

147. Which of the following is a common medical use of radiation?

148. The mass defect of a nucleus is:

149. Nuclear decay is described as spontaneous and random. "Random" means:

150. A line absorption spectrum is produced when:

151. According to the particle model of light, light consists of discrete packets of energy called:

152. When a PN junction is reverse-biased (p-side to negative, n-side to positive), the resistance of the junction is:

153. Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum has the highest frequency?

154. In an AC circuit containing only a capacitor, the:

155. For an ideal step-down transformer, the primary coil has Np = 1000 turns and the secondary coil has Ns = 100 turns. If the primary voltage is 240 V, the secondary voltage is:

156. A proton (charge +e) enters a magnetic field B with velocity v. The magnetic force on the proton is zero if:

157. The magnetic force on a charged particle is F = qvB sin(θ). The force is maximum when the particle moves:

158. Maximum power is delivered from a source to a load when:

159. The terminal potential difference of a cell is equal to its EMF when:

160. The resistivity of most metallic conductors:

161. The electric field inside a charged hollow conducting sphere is:

162. When a dielectric medium is introduced between two charges, the electrostatic force:

163. The second harmonic (first overtone) of a string fixed at both ends has:

164. The principle of superposition applies to:

165. What is the effect of increasing pressure on the speed of sound in an ideal gas, assuming temperature is constant?

166. Laplace corrected Newton's formula by assuming the sound wave propagation was:

167. The drag force exerted by a fluid on an object depends on the object's speed, size, shape, and the fluid's:

168. A 60 W light bulb runs for 100 seconds. The total energy consumed is:

169. An object reaches terminal velocity when:

170. Absolute potential energy is measured relative to a reference level, which is typically:

171. A man pushes a wall with a force of 100 N for 10 seconds, but the wall does not move. The work done by the man is:

172. A 2 kg ball moving at 5 m/s collides with a 3 kg ball at rest. They stick together after the collision. What is their common velocity?

173. The conservation of linear momentum is a direct consequence of:

174. A projectile is launched at 30° and another identical one is launched at 60° with the same initial speed. Which statement is true?

175. At the maximum height of a projectile's trajectory, the vertical component of its velocity is:

176. Projectile motion, in the absence of air resistance, is a two-dimensional motion with:

177. A car starts from rest and reaches a velocity of 20 m/s in 5 seconds. What is its average velocity?

178. A car travels 30 km east and then 40 km north. What is the magnitude of its displacement?

179. If A = 2i + 3j and B = 4i + kj, and both vectors are perpendicular, what is the value of k?

180. If a vector A has components Ax = 5 units and Ay = 5 units, what is the angle the vector makes with the positive x-axis?